Suppose W is finite-dimensional and T1,T2∈L(V,W). Prove that null T1=null T2 if and only if there exists an invertible operator S∈L(W) such that T1=ST2.
(In other words, find an isomorphism S between the output ranges such that T1=ST2.)
Suppose null T1=null T2. Let N denote the nullspace, by 2.34 there exists a subspace U such that U⊕N=V.
Let R1=range T1,R2=range T2. Both T1 and T2 are invertible when treated as maps from U to their range (restricting inputs to U makes them injective, treating the outputs as the range makes them surjective).
I'll denote the restricted maps as T~1∈L(U,R1) and T~2∈L(U,R2).
If w=T~2u then T~1T~2−1w=T~1u. This leads us to define S=T~1T~2−1, clearly S∈L(R2,R1) is invertible as it's the product of two invertible maps.
We've found the desired isomorphism between the ranges, now we just need to extend S to be invertible on all of W, this is straightforward since 2.34 gives us subspaces R1′,R2′ such that W=R1⊕R1′=R2⊕R2′. Since dimensions match 3.59 allows us to find an isomorphism S′:R1′→R2′ so we can finish our definition of S∈L(W) with
Sw=S(r1+r1′)=T~1T~2−1r1+S′r1′
Verifying T1=ST2 is straightforward, write each v∈V as v=u+n to get
ST2(u+n)=T~1T~2−1T2u=T~1T~2−1T~2u=T~1u=T1(u+n)
todo: explain why direct sums are needed to ensure maps are well defined (currently left implicit)
todo: add diagram of what S looks like
(Old, bad proof. left here for it's historic value)
Suppose null T1=null T2. Let u1,…,un be a basis for null T1 then extend it to a basis u1,…,un,v1,…,vr of V. By 3.22 we know r=dimrange T1=dimrange T2, define wk=T1vk and wk′=T2vk. Since any w∈range T1 can be written
w=T1v=T1(a1u1+⋯+anun+b1v1+⋯+brvr)=b1w1+⋯+brwr
We have that w1,…,wr spans range T1, since r=dimrange T1 2.42 implies w1,…,wr is a basis of range T1. Exactly the same logic shows that w1′,…,wr′ is a basis of range T2.
Extend to bases w1,…,wm and w1′,…,wm′ of W then define Swk′=wk. S is clearly an isomorphism as we're just relabeling one basis into another.
To see T1=ST2 consider v=a1u1+⋯+anun+b1v1+⋯+brvr and
T1v=b1w1+⋯+brwr=S(b1w1′+⋯+brwr′)=ST2v
Now suppose T1=ST2. If v∈null T1 then T1v=0=ST2=0 implies T2=0 since S is injective. and if v∈null T2 then clearly T1v=0.
I spent more then 2 hours finding a short, rigorous, somewhat understandable proof. I did compromise a bit at the end, assuming the reader can make reasonable inferences on their own.
edit: I found a better proof, I'll leave the other one for reference